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The Daily Word of Righteousness
The Greatest Lie Ever Told, #4
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. (I John 3:8)
We are not implying by this statement that those who led us to the Lord were attempting to harm us, or that today's preachers and teachers are deliberately destroying the moral character of the believers. It is true, rather, that in the process of "cleansing the temple" today, the "Book of the Law" has been found in the trash of tradition. It is time, therefore, for all of God's people to repent. We have been deceived!
The exhortations of many preachers of the Gospel are flattering and wishy-washy. They are not lifting up their voice like a trumpet and showing God's people their sins.
Christ was not sent by the Father to excuse or "cover" the behavior of God's people. Rather, Christ was sent to destroy the works of the devil, to turn people from ungodly behavior to godly behavior.
Let us continue our discussion by examining several aspects of the current misunderstanding of God's grace under the new covenant:
Does God see the behavior of the Christian and judge it or does He see Christ's righteousness and holiness instead?
What is the role of imputation (ascribed righteousness)? What are the limits of imputation?
What is the new covenant?
Precisely what is the Divine salvation (redemption)?
Why would we be admonished to work out our own salvation with fear and trembling if righteousness is imputed to us unconditionally and eternally?
What does Peter mean when he claims the righteous are saved with difficulty?
Why is it not true that Jesus already has "saved" us and that our motive for righteous behavior is that we ought to try to please Him in appreciation for what He has done for us?
Who is it that builds his house on the rock?
What is the meaning of the parable of the sower?
What is the purpose of the return of the Lord Jesus to the world?
In what manner do both the Catholic and Protestant approaches to righteousness come short of the Glory of God?
Does God see the behavior of the Christian and judge it or does He see Christ's righteousness and holiness instead? There is a Christian maxim that views grace (g-r-a-c-e) as "God's Riches At Christ's Expense." The implication here is that Christ bears the cross alone and all the believers can do as they please. There is an old hymn that takes issue with this concept ("Must Jesus Bear the Cross Alone?"). The idea is definitely humanistic—well adapted to the wealthy "Christian" churches of the twentieth century.
When the believer lies, does God judge the lie as sin or is the truthfulness of Christ imputed (ascribed) to the individual?
When the believer practices fornication (and some church members do), does God judge the fornication as sin or is the moral purity of Christ imputed to the individual?
How do the Christian lie and the Christian fornication differ from the lie and the fornication of the unbeliever, in the sight of God?
This is an extremely important issue. How we resolve it in our mind affects the manner in which we perceive the Christian redemption.
What is your answer?
What is the answer of the Scripture?
To be continued.